Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
14.06.2025 23:44
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
You'll usually find your answer there.
I feel like my boyfriend doesn't love me. Why?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
In my experience, British people are fat, ugly and arrogant. Why is it and can it be changed?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.